X-Ray Technician MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for X-Ray Technician - Download Free PDF
Last updated on Apr 18, 2025
Latest X-Ray Technician MCQ Objective Questions
X-Ray Technician Question 1:
What is the preferred contrast agent in MRI?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : Gadolinium
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X-Ray Technician Question 1 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Gadolinium
Rationale:
- Gadolinium is the preferred contrast agent in MRI because it is a paramagnetic substance. This means it enhances the quality of the MRI images by altering the magnetic properties of nearby water molecules, thereby improving the contrast of the images.
- Gadolinium-based contrast agents (GBCAs) are widely used due to their ability to improve the visualization of abnormal tissues, blood vessels, and inflammation. They are particularly useful in detecting tumors, brain disorders, and other soft tissue abnormalities.
- Gadolinium is considered safe for most patients, though there are some risks associated with its use, especially in individuals with severe renal impairment. In such cases, nephrogenic systemic fibrosis (NSF) could be a potential risk.
Explanation of Other Options:
Iodine
- Rationale: Iodine-based contrast agents are primarily used in X-ray and CT scans, not in MRI. They work by absorbing X-rays, which helps to create a clearer image. However, they are not suitable for MRI because they do not have the same magnetic properties as gadolinium.
Barium sulfate
- Rationale: Barium sulfate is a contrast agent used in X-ray and CT imaging of the gastrointestinal tract. It is ingested orally or rectally to enhance the visibility of the digestive system. Barium sulfate is not used in MRI because it does not affect magnetic properties.
Saline
- Rationale: Saline (sterile saltwater) is not used as a contrast agent in MRI. While saline is safe and commonly used for various medical purposes, it does not enhance the magnetic properties required for MRI contrast.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, gadolinium is the preferred contrast agent for MRI due to its paramagnetic properties, which significantly enhance the quality of the images. This helps in better diagnosis and visualization of various medical conditions, particularly those involving soft tissues.
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X-Ray Technician Question 2:
Which special procedure uses contrast to visualize the salivary glands?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Sialography
X-Ray Technician Question 2 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Sialography
Rationale:
- Sialography is a special radiographic procedure used to visualize the salivary glands. This technique involves the injection of a contrast medium into the salivary ducts, allowing for detailed imaging of the glands. The contrast medium highlights the salivary ducts and glands, enabling the detection of blockages, stones, tumors, or other abnormalities.
- Key points related to Sialography:
- Sialography provides detailed images of the salivary glands.
- It is used to diagnose conditions such as salivary gland stones, infections, and tumors.
- The procedure involves the injection of a contrast medium directly into the salivary ducts.
- Common indications for sialography include chronic sialadenitis, recurrent salivary gland swelling, and evaluation of salivary gland function.
- Additional information: Sialography is typically performed by a radiologist or an oral and maxillofacial surgeon. The patient may experience some discomfort during the injection of the contrast medium, but the procedure is generally safe and well-tolerated.
Explanation of Other Options:
Hysterosalpingography
- Rationale: Hysterosalpingography is a radiographic procedure used to visualize the uterus and fallopian tubes. It involves the injection of a contrast medium into the uterine cavity to assess the patency of the fallopian tubes and detect abnormalities such as blockages or congenital malformations.
IVP (Intravenous Pyelography)
- Rationale: IVP is a radiographic procedure used to visualize the kidneys, ureters, and bladder. It involves the injection of a contrast medium into a vein, which is then excreted by the kidneys, allowing for the imaging of the urinary tract.
Urethrography
- Rationale: Urethrography is a radiographic procedure used to visualize the urethra. It involves the injection of a contrast medium into the urethra to assess its structure and detect abnormalities such as strictures or injuries.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, sialography is the correct procedure for visualizing the salivary glands using a contrast medium. The other options involve different anatomical regions and diagnostic purposes.
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X-Ray Technician Question 3:
Which contrast study helps in detecting vesicoureteral reflux?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : VCUG (Voiding cystourethrogram)
X-Ray Technician Question 3 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: VCUG (Voiding cystourethrogram)
Rationale:
- A Voiding Cystourethrogram (VCUG) is a specific type of imaging study used to detect vesicoureteral reflux (VUR), which is the backward flow of urine from the bladder into the ureters and kidneys.
- During a VCUG, a contrast dye is introduced into the bladder through a catheter. X-rays are taken while the bladder fills and during urination to visualize the flow of the urine and detect any abnormal reflux.
- VCUG is particularly useful in diagnosing urinary tract infections in children, assessing the function of the bladder and urethra, and identifying structural abnormalities in the urinary tract.
Explanation of Other Options:
IVU (Intravenous Urogram)
- Rationale: An Intravenous Urogram (IVU), also known as Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP), is an X-ray examination of the urinary tract, including the kidneys, ureters, and bladder. It involves injecting a contrast dye into a vein and taking X-rays to track the dye as it travels through the urinary system. While it helps detect obstructions, stones, and tumors, it is not specifically used for detecting vesicoureteral reflux.
CT Scan
- Rationale: A CT scan (Computed Tomography) provides detailed cross-sectional images of the body's internal structures. While it can identify various abnormalities and conditions affecting the kidneys, ureters, and bladder, it is not the primary study for detecting vesicoureteral reflux.
MR Angiography
- Rationale: MR Angiography (MRA) is an imaging technique that uses magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to visualize blood vessels. It is primarily used to detect vascular abnormalities, such as aneurysms, stenosis, and blockages, rather than issues related to the urinary system like vesicoureteral reflux.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, VCUG (Voiding Cystourethrogram) is the most appropriate imaging study for detecting vesicoureteral reflux. It provides specific visual evidence of urine flow abnormalities from the bladder into the ureters, making it the gold standard for diagnosing this condition.
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X-Ray Technician Question 4:
What precaution should be taken before giving iodinated contrast intravenously?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Check renal function & allergy history
X-Ray Technician Question 4 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Check renal function & allergy history
Rationale:
- Iodinated contrast agents are commonly used in radiographic imaging to enhance the visibility of internal structures. However, these agents can pose risks, especially to patients with certain pre-existing conditions.
- Before administering iodinated contrast intravenously, it is crucial to check the patient's renal function. This is because iodinated contrast can be nephrotoxic, potentially leading to contrast-induced nephropathy, particularly in patients with pre-existing kidney disease.
- Additionally, assessing allergy history is vital to identify any previous allergic reactions to iodinated contrast. This helps in preventing severe allergic reactions, which can range from mild rashes to life-threatening anaphylaxis.
Explanation of Other Options:
Ensure fasting 24 hrs
- Rationale: Fasting for 24 hours is not a standard precaution before administering iodinated contrast. While some procedures may require fasting for a shorter period to reduce the risk of aspiration, 24-hour fasting is excessive and unnecessary.
Administer antibiotics
- Rationale: Administering antibiotics is not related to the use of iodinated contrast. Antibiotics are used to treat or prevent bacterial infections, and their routine administration is not required before giving iodinated contrast unless there is a specific indication for infection control.
Give barium orally
- Rationale: Barium is another type of contrast agent used specifically for gastrointestinal imaging. It is given orally or rectally to enhance the visibility of the GI tract. It is not a substitute for iodinated contrast, which is used for different imaging purposes and administered intravenously.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, checking renal function and allergy history is the most critical precaution before administering iodinated contrast intravenously. This ensures patient safety by mitigating the risk of nephrotoxicity and allergic reactions, which are the primary concerns associated with iodinated contrast agents.
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X-Ray Technician Question 5:
A patient is allergic to iodine contrast. Which is the best alternative for vascular imaging?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : CO₂ (carbon dioxide)
X-Ray Technician Question 5 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: CO₂ (carbon dioxide)
Rationale:
- Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is a safe and effective alternative for vascular imaging in patients who are allergic to iodine contrast agents.
- CO₂ is a naturally occurring gas in the body, making it a biocompatible contrast agent with minimal risk of allergic reactions.
- It is particularly useful for imaging peripheral vascular diseases, venous imaging, and in patients with renal insufficiency where iodine contrast could exacerbate kidney damage.
Explanation of Other Options:
Air
- Rationale: Air is not a suitable contrast agent for vascular imaging due to the risk of air embolism, which can be potentially fatal. Air embolism occurs when air bubbles enter the vascular system and obstruct blood flow.
Saline
- Rationale: Saline is commonly used to flush intravenous lines but does not provide adequate contrast for imaging purposes. It lacks the density required to produce clear and distinct vascular images.
Barium
- Rationale: Barium is a contrast agent used primarily for imaging the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, such as in barium swallow or barium enema procedures. It is not suitable for vascular imaging as it does not provide the necessary contrast for blood vessels.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, CO₂ (carbon dioxide) is the most appropriate and safest alternative for vascular imaging in patients who are allergic to iodine contrast agents. It provides clear imaging with minimal risk of adverse reactions, making it a reliable choice in specific clinical scenarios.
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Top X-Ray Technician MCQ Objective Questions
What does "mAs" stand for in radiology?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Milliampere-seconds
X-Ray Technician Question 6 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFCorrect Answer: Milliampere-seconds
Rationale:
- In radiology, "mAs" stands for milliampere-seconds. It is a unit of measurement that reflects the total amount of electrical current passing through the X-ray tube over a specified period of time.
- Milliampere-seconds (mAs) are crucial in determining the quantity of X-ray photons produced during an exposure, which directly affects the image quality and patient dose.
- The formula for mAs is: mA (milliamperes) × exposure time (seconds) = mAs. This means that both the tube current and the exposure time contribute to the total mAs value.
Explanation of Other Options:
Mass and Absorption Spectrum
- Rationale: This option is incorrect as it does not relate to the standard terminology used in radiology. "Mass and Absorption Spectrum" is not a recognized term in the context of X-ray technology or imaging parameters.
Milliamperes per second
- Rationale: While this option might seem plausible, it is incorrect. The correct term is milliampere-seconds (mAs), which combines the tube current (measured in milliamperes) with the exposure time (measured in seconds).
Milliamperes per shot
- Rationale: This option is incorrect. "Milliamperes per shot" is not a standard term in radiology. The correct term, milliampere-seconds (mAs), encompasses the entire exposure duration rather than per shot.
Conclusion:
- Milliampere-seconds (mAs) are a fundamental parameter in radiology, affecting both the quality of the X-ray image and the radiation dose to the patient. Understanding the correct definition and usage of mAs is essential for accurate imaging and patient safety.
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Which of the following practices can help minimize radiation exposure to both patient and staff?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Using high-speed film
X-Ray Technician Question 7 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFCorrect Answer: Using high-speed film
Rationale:
- High-speed film is designed to be more sensitive to X-rays, allowing for shorter exposure times. This reduces the amount of radiation the patient is exposed to during an X-ray procedure.
- Minimizing exposure time is a key principle in radiation safety, as it directly reduces the dose received by both the patient and the healthcare provider.
- Using high-speed film also helps maintain image quality while adhering to the ALARA (As Low As Reasonably Achievable) principle, which aims to minimize radiation exposure.
Explanation of Other Options:
Increasing mAs
- Rationale: Increasing milliampere-seconds (mAs) directly increases the amount of X-ray photons produced, which in turn increases the radiation dose to the patient. This is contrary to the goal of minimizing exposure.
Reducing distance from the X-ray source
- Rationale: Reducing the distance from the X-ray source to the patient or staff increases radiation exposure due to the inverse square law, which states that radiation intensity increases as the distance to the source decreases.
Using a smaller focal spot
- Rationale: While using a smaller focal spot can improve image resolution, it does not directly affect radiation exposure. It does not contribute to minimizing radiation dose to the patient or staff.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, using high-speed film is the most effective practice for minimizing radiation exposure to both patients and staff. It ensures high-quality imaging while adhering to radiation safety principles.
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For a radiograph of the abdomen, which view is most commonly used?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Supine
X-Ray Technician Question 8 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFCorrect Answer: Supine
Rationale:
- A supine position, where the patient lies flat on their back, is the most commonly used view for a radiograph of the abdomen. This position allows for a clear and comprehensive view of the abdominal cavity, making it easier to identify abnormalities such as bowel obstructions, organ enlargement, or the presence of free air or fluid.
- The supine view provides a consistent and reproducible image, which is essential for diagnosing and monitoring the progression of abdominal conditions.
- In this position, the abdominal organs are spread out and not compressed, which helps in obtaining a detailed image of the internal structures.
Explanation of Other Options:
Prone
- Rationale: In the prone position, the patient lies flat on their stomach. This view is less commonly used for abdominal radiographs because it can compress the abdominal organs, potentially obscuring important details and making it more difficult to identify abnormalities.
Erect
- Rationale: The erect position, where the patient stands or sits upright, can be used in specific situations to identify free air under the diaphragm or to assess the distribution of fluid in the abdominal cavity. However, it is not the most common view for a general abdominal radiograph.
Lateral
- Rationale: The lateral position, where the patient lies on their side, can be useful in certain cases to provide additional information or to confirm findings from other views. However, it is not the standard view for routine abdominal radiographs.
Conclusion:
- The supine position is preferred for abdominal radiographs due to its ability to provide a clear, detailed, and comprehensive view of the abdominal cavity. Other positions like prone, erect, and lateral have their specific uses but are not as commonly employed for general abdominal imaging.
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What positioning error could cause foreshortening of the image in radiography?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Improper central ray angulation
X-Ray Technician Question 9 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFCorrect Answer: Improper central ray angulation
Rationale:
- Foreshortening in radiographic imaging occurs when the part of the body being imaged appears shorter than its actual size. This can happen due to the misalignment of the central ray with the anatomical structure.
- Improper central ray angulation is a primary cause of foreshortening. When the central ray is not perpendicular to the part being imaged, it causes the structure to appear compressed or shortened on the radiograph.
Explanation of Other Options:
Increased source-to-image distance
- Rationale: Increasing the source-to-image distance (SID) will generally reduce magnification and improve image sharpness. However, it does not cause foreshortening. Instead, it helps in reducing the effects of divergence of the X-ray beam.
Correct collimation
- Rationale: Proper collimation limits the size and shape of the X-ray beam to the area of interest. It reduces patient exposure and improves image quality by minimizing scatter radiation. It does not cause foreshortening.
Low mAs settings
- Rationale: mAs (milliampere-seconds) settings control the amount of radiation produced by the X-ray tube. Low mAs settings result in lower image density and may increase quantum noise. However, they do not affect the shape or size of the image and therefore do not cause foreshortening.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, improper central ray angulation is the correct answer as it directly causes foreshortening of the radiographic image. Proper alignment and positioning are essential to avoid such distortions and ensure accurate imaging.
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In an AP (anteroposterior) projection of the knee, where is the central ray directed?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : Through the joint space
X-Ray Technician Question 10 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFCorrect Answer: Through the joint space
Rationale:
- In an AP (anteroposterior) projection of the knee, the central ray is directed through the joint space. This positioning ensures that the structures of the knee, including the femur, tibia, and patella, are clearly visualized without distortion.
- Proper alignment of the central ray through the joint space is crucial for accurate assessment of joint alignment, detection of fractures, and evaluation of degenerative changes such as arthritis.
Explanation of Other Options:
Through the lateral condyle
- Rationale: Directing the central ray through the lateral condyle would not provide a clear view of the entire knee joint. It might result in a distorted image, making it difficult to assess the overall joint structure and alignment.
Just above the patella
- Rationale: Positioning the central ray just above the patella would not adequately visualize the knee joint space. The main objective of an AP projection is to assess the joint space and the alignment of the bones within the knee, which would be compromised with this positioning.
Through the tibial tuberosity
- Rationale: Directing the central ray through the tibial tuberosity would focus the image on the anterior aspect of the tibia, missing the joint space. This positioning would not provide a comprehensive view of the knee joint and its components.
Conclusion:
- For an accurate AP projection of the knee, the central ray must be directed through the joint space. This ensures a clear and undistorted image of the knee joint, which is essential for proper diagnosis and evaluation of knee pathologies.
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What is the standard positioning for a lateral chest X-ray?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Patient standing with their left side against the image receptor
X-Ray Technician Question 11 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFCorrect Answer: Patient standing with their left side against the image receptor
Rationale:
- In a lateral chest X-ray, the patient stands with their left side against the image receptor. This positioning is chosen to minimize the magnification of the heart and to provide a clear view of the lungs, heart, and other thoracic structures.
- This position allows for better visualization of the left lung and the heart, as these structures are closer to the image receptor and thus appear more accurately sized and detailed.
Explanation of Other Options:
Patient lying on their back
- Rationale: This position is not used for a lateral chest X-ray as it does not provide a clear lateral view of the chest. Instead, it is typically used for a supine (AP) chest X-ray, where the patient is lying down and the image is taken from above.
Patient standing with their right side against the image receptor
- Rationale: Although this position could technically be used, it is less common than the left-side approach. The left lateral position is preferred because it reduces the magnification of the heart, which is closer to the left side of the body.
Patient standing facing the X-ray tube
- Rationale: This is the positioning for a posteroanterior (PA) chest X-ray, not a lateral chest X-ray. In a PA chest X-ray, the patient faces the image receptor with their back to the X-ray tube to provide a front view of the chest.
Conclusion:
- The standard positioning for a lateral chest X-ray involves the patient standing with their left side against the image receptor. This positioning minimizes heart magnification and provides a detailed view of the thoracic structures. Other positions mentioned are used for different types of chest X-rays or are less preferred for lateral views.
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In a PA (posteroanterior) chest X-ray, the X-ray beam enters the body from which direction?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : From the back
X-Ray Technician Question 12 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFCorrect Answer: From the back
Rationale:
- In a posteroanterior (PA) chest X-ray, the X-ray beam enters the body from the posterior side (the back) and exits from the anterior side (the front). This means that the X-ray source is positioned behind the patient, and the X-ray film or detector is placed in front of the patient.
- PA chest X-rays are commonly used because they provide a clearer and more accurate representation of the heart, lungs, and other thoracic structures. The heart appears less magnified in this view compared to an anteroposterior (AP) chest X-ray, which is often taken when the patient cannot stand.
Explanation of Other Options:
From the front
- Rationale: This describes an anteroposterior (AP) X-ray, where the X-ray beam enters the body from the front and exits from the back. AP X-rays are less preferred for chest imaging because the heart appears more magnified and less accurate due to the increased distance between the heart and the detector.
From the side
- Rationale: This describes a lateral X-ray, where the X-ray beam enters the body from one side and exits from the other side. Lateral X-rays are often used in conjunction with PA or AP X-rays to provide a more comprehensive view of the chest structures.
From the top
- Rationale: This option is incorrect as it does not describe a standard method for taking chest X-rays. X-rays are generally taken in PA, AP, or lateral views, but not from the top.
Conclusion:
- The PA chest X-ray is the preferred method for imaging the chest because it provides a more accurate representation of the thoracic structures by having the X-ray beam enter from the back. This method minimizes the magnification of the heart and provides a clearer image for diagnosis.
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Which of the following can result in increased fog on the X-ray film?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Excessive safelight exposure
X-Ray Technician Question 13 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFCorrect Answer: Excessive safelight exposure
Rationale:
- Excessive safelight exposure can cause increased fog on the X-ray film. Safelights are designed to provide illumination in darkrooms without exposing the film to wavelengths of light that would cause it to fog. However, if the safelight is too bright, too close to the work area, or if the filter is incorrect or damaged, it can contribute to film fogging.
- Fog on X-ray film reduces image contrast and can obscure important diagnostic information. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that safelights are properly installed and maintained to minimize any risk of fogging.
Explanation of Other Options:
Overdevelopment
- Rationale: Overdevelopment refers to leaving the film in the developer solution for too long or using a developer solution that is too strong. While overdevelopment can increase the density of the film, it is not a primary cause of film fogging. It generally leads to increased contrast rather than a uniform fog.
Low temperature in the developer
- Rationale: Low temperature in the developer solution slows down the development process. This can result in underdeveloped films with lower density and contrast, but it does not typically cause increased fog on the film.
Proper film storage
- Rationale: Proper film storage involves keeping the film in a cool, dry place away from radiation, chemicals, and excessive light. Proper storage practices help to prevent fogging and other forms of damage to the film, ensuring that it remains in good condition until it is used.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, excessive safelight exposure is the correct answer as it is a common cause of increased fog on X-ray film. It is important to monitor and control safelight conditions in darkrooms to maintain the quality and clarity of the X-ray images.
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What is the purpose of a safelight in the darkroom?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : To allow safe handling of X-ray films without exposure
X-Ray Technician Question 14 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFCorrect Answer: To allow safe handling of X-ray films without exposure
Rationale:
- A safelight in a darkroom is designed to provide enough illumination for the technician to work without exposing the X-ray films to light that would cause them to fog or become unusable.
- The safelight typically emits light in wavelengths that the X-ray film is not sensitive to, thus preventing accidental exposure and ensuring the integrity of the film during processing.
Explanation of Other Options:
To reduce fog on the X-ray film
- Rationale: While reducing fog on the X-ray film is an important aspect of using a safelight, the primary purpose is to prevent exposure. The safelight ensures the film does not get exposed to inappropriate light during handling, which indirectly helps in reducing fog, but this is not its main function.
To filter out all visible light
- Rationale: A safelight does not filter out all visible light. Instead, it filters out the wavelengths that the film is sensitive to, allowing other wavelengths that are safe for the film to be used for illumination.
To increase image contrast
- Rationale: Increasing image contrast is not related to the function of a safelight. Image contrast is typically adjusted during the development process and is influenced by factors such as the exposure of the film and the chemicals used, not by the safelight.
Conclusion:
- The primary purpose of a safelight in a darkroom is to allow safe handling of X-ray films without exposing them to light that they are sensitive to. This ensures that the films remain unexposed during processing, thus maintaining their quality and usability.
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What is the role of the fixer in X-ray film processing?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : To remove unexposed silver halide crystals
X-Ray Technician Question 15 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFCorrect Answer: To remove unexposed silver halide crystals
Rationale:
- The fixer plays a crucial role in the X-ray film processing. Its primary function is to remove unexposed silver halide crystals from the film. This step is essential to ensure that these crystals do not contribute to the final image, which would otherwise appear foggy or unclear.
- By eliminating these unexposed crystals, the fixer helps in stabilizing the image and making it permanent, ensuring that the film can be safely exposed to light without further changes to the image.
- The fixer also hardens the film emulsion, which makes the film more durable and less susceptible to physical damage during handling and storage.
Explanation of Other Options:
To develop the latent image
- Rationale: This is the role of the developer, not the fixer. The developer reduces exposed silver halide crystals to metallic silver, which forms the visible image. The fixer does not participate in this process.
To stop the development process
- Rationale: The stop bath or water rinse typically halts the development process by neutralizing the developer's chemical activity. The fixer's role is not to stop development but to remove unexposed silver halide crystals.
To increase image sharpness
- Rationale: Image sharpness is primarily influenced by factors such as the quality of the X-ray equipment, exposure settings, and film-screen combination. The fixer does not directly affect the sharpness of the image.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, the fixer's correct role is to remove unexposed silver halide crystals from the X-ray film. This step is critical for ensuring the clarity and permanence of the image. Other functions like developing the latent image, stopping the development process, and increasing image sharpness are performed by different components and steps in the film processing procedure.
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