OT Technician MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for OT Technician - Download Free PDF

• Post-operative nursing responsibilities are crucial for ensuring the patient's safety and promoting recovery after surgery. One of the common responsibilities is monitoring recovery and addressing complications.
• This involves closely observing the patient's vital signs, such as heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation, to detect any signs of deterioration or complications early.
• Nurses also assess the surgical site for signs of infection, bleeding, or other issues. They manage pain effectively, administer prescribed medications, and provide wound care.
• Additionally, nurses educate patients and their families about post-operative care, including activity restrictions, medication schedules, and signs of potential complications to watch for at home.

• Rationale: Administering anesthesia is typically the responsibility of an anesthesiologist or a nurse anesthetist, not a post-operative nurse. The focus of the post-operative nurse is on recovery and monitoring after the surgery, not on the administration of anesthesia during the procedure.

• Rationale: Operating surgical equipment is the responsibility of the surgical team, including surgeons and surgical technologists. Post-operative nurses are not involved in the actual surgical procedure or the operation of surgical equipment.

• Rationale: While moving the patient to the recovery area is a task that may involve post-operative nurses, it is not their primary responsibility. This task is often performed by the surgical team or designated transport personnel. The primary role of the post-operative nurse is to monitor and manage the patient's recovery once they are in the recovery area.

• Among the given options, the primary responsibility of post-operative nurses is monitoring recovery and addressing complications. This involves ensuring patient safety, managing pain, observing for complications, providing wound care, and educating patients for effective recovery.

• Preparing the Operating Theatre (OT) for surgery involves creating a sterile environment to prevent infections and ensuring optimal visibility for the surgical team.
• Ensuring proper lighting is crucial as it allows surgeons to clearly see the surgical site and perform the operation with precision.
• Maintaining a sterile field is essential to prevent contamination and reduce the risk of postoperative infections. This involves sterilizing instruments, draping the patient appropriately, and ensuring all team members follow strict aseptic techniques.

• Rationale: Monitoring patient vitals is critical during surgery to ensure the patient's stability, but it is not part of the OT preparation process. It is a continuous process carried out during the surgery.

• Rationale: Administering medications, such as anesthesia, is necessary for surgery, but this task is performed by the anesthesiologist or nurse prior to surgery and not part of OT preparation.

• Rationale: Checking patient history is essential for understanding any potential risks or complications, but it is part of the preoperative assessment rather than the physical preparation of the OT.

• The preparation of the OT for surgery primarily involves ensuring proper lighting and maintaining a sterile field to create an optimal and safe environment for the surgical procedure. Other tasks such as monitoring vitals, administering medications, and checking patient history are important but fall under different aspects of patient care and surgical preparation.

• One of the primary responsibilities of an OT (Operating Theatre) technician before surgery begins is to ensure that the operating area is sterile. This involves thoroughly cleaning and disinfecting the operating room, arranging sterile instruments, and ensuring that all surgical tools and equipment are properly sterilized to prevent infections.
• Sterility is paramount in surgical procedures to avoid postoperative infections, which can lead to complications and prolonged recovery times.
• The OT technician plays a crucial role in maintaining the sterility of the environment by following strict protocols and guidelines set by healthcare institutions.

• Rationale: Administering anesthesia is typically the responsibility of an anesthesiologist or a certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA), not an OT technician. These professionals have specialized training in managing anesthesia during surgical procedures.

• Rationale: Monitoring the patient's heart rate and other vital signs is primarily the responsibility of the anesthesiologist or the surgical team. The OT technician may assist by preparing the necessary monitoring equipment, but they do not directly monitor the patient's vital signs.

• Rationale: Operating surgical tools during a procedure is the responsibility of the surgeon and surgical assistants. The OT technician's role is to ensure that these tools are available, sterilized, and properly arranged for the surgical team.

• Among the given options, ensuring the operating area is sterile is the key responsibility of an OT technician before surgery begins. This task is crucial for maintaining a safe and infection-free surgical environment, thereby protecting both the patient and the healthcare team.

• Urogenital surgery, also known as urological surgery, involves operations on the urinary system and the male reproductive organs. This type of surgery can involve procedures on the kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra, and the male reproductive organs such as the prostate and testes.
• One common urological procedure is nephrectomy, which is the surgical removal of a kidney or a part of it. This can be necessary due to conditions such as kidney cancer, severe kidney damage, or other kidney diseases that impair function.
• Partial nephrectomy involves removing only the diseased part of the kidney, preserving as much kidney function as possible. Radical nephrectomy involves removing the entire kidney, often along with nearby tissues and lymph nodes.

• Rationale: Gastrointestinal tract (G.I.T.) surgery involves operations on the digestive system, including the esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, liver, pancreas, and gallbladder. It does not typically involve procedures on the kidneys.

• Rationale: Orthopedic surgery focuses on the musculoskeletal system, including bones, joints, ligaments, tendons, and muscles. This type of surgery addresses conditions such as fractures, dislocations, and arthritis, and does not involve the kidneys.

• Rationale: Hepatobiliary surgery involves operations on the liver, bile ducts, and gallbladder. It addresses conditions such as liver cancer, bile duct obstructions, and gallstones, and does not involve the removal of the kidneys.

• Among the given options, urogenital surgery is the type of surgery that may involve removing a kidney or part of it. This is due to its focus on the urinary system, which includes the kidneys.

• Pre-operative care involves a series of steps to ensure that the patient is ready for surgery. This includes both physical and psychological preparation to minimize the risks and complications during the surgery.
• Preparing the patient involves ensuring that the patient is in optimal health before the surgery, which may include fasting, administering preoperative medications, and conducting necessary tests and evaluations.
• Preparing the surgical site involves cleaning and sterilizing the area where the surgery will be performed to reduce the risk of infections.
• This step is crucial to ensure the safety and success of the surgical procedure, making it a key feature of pre-operative care.

• Rationale: This step is part of post-operative care, not pre-operative care. Waking the patient up from anesthesia occurs after the surgery is completed and is part of the recovery process.

• Rationale: While administering a sedative can be part of the pre-operative preparation to help relax the patient, it is not the key feature. Sedatives are used to reduce anxiety and make the patient more comfortable, but they are just one aspect of the overall preparation process.

• Rationale: This is not a standard practice in pre-operative care. In fact, some medications may be continued or adjusted rather than removed. It is important for healthcare providers to review the patient's current medications to ensure there are no adverse interactions with anesthesia or the surgical procedure.

• The preparation of the patient and the surgical site is the key feature of pre-operative care, as it encompasses a broad range of activities aimed at ensuring patient safety and the success of the surgical procedure. Other steps, such as administering sedatives or managing medications, are also important but serve specific roles within the broader context of preparation.

• Epidural anesthesia is a commonly used method for pain relief during childbirth. It involves the injection of an anesthetic into the epidural space of the spinal cord, which blocks pain signals from the lower part of the body.
• This type of anesthesia allows the mother to remain awake and aware during childbirth while effectively managing pain. It can be continuously administered through a catheter to maintain pain relief throughout labor and delivery.
• Epidural anesthesia can be adjusted in dosage to control the level of pain relief, providing flexibility and comfort to the birthing mother.

• Rationale: Spinal anesthesia involves injecting an anesthetic into the cerebrospinal fluid in the subarachnoid space. It provides quick and profound anesthesia, often used for cesarean sections, but it is not typically used for continuous pain relief during labor due to its shorter duration of action.

• Rationale: Local anesthesia involves the injection of an anesthetic directly into the tissue to numb a specific area. While it can be used for minor procedures, it is not practical for managing the extensive pain of childbirth as it does not provide widespread pain relief.

• Rationale: General anesthesia induces a state of unconsciousness and is used for major surgeries. It is rarely used during childbirth because it causes the mother to be completely unconscious, which is not ideal for a vaginal delivery where the mother's participation is necessary. It is mostly reserved for emergency cesarean sections when immediate delivery is critical.

• Among the given options, epidural anesthesia is the most suitable method for pain relief during childbirth. It provides effective pain management while allowing the mother to stay awake and participate in the birthing process. Other methods, such as spinal anesthesia, local anesthesia, and general anesthesia, have specific uses but are not typically employed for continuous pain relief during labor.

• Peripheral cannulation involves the insertion of a cannula into a vein that is located in the periphery of the body, typically in the limbs. These veins are usually superficial, easy to access, and less risky compared to central veins.
• The subclavian vein is not used for peripheral cannulation because it is a central vein located under the collarbone (clavicle). Accessing this vein carries higher risks such as pneumothorax, arterial puncture, and infection, and it is typically used for central venous catheterization rather than peripheral access.

• Rationale: The cubital vein, specifically the median cubital vein, is commonly used for peripheral cannulation. It is located in the antecubital fossa (the bend of the elbow) and is easily accessible, making it a preferred site for drawing blood and administering IV fluids.

• Rationale: The saphenous vein is a large superficial vein in the leg. It is another common site for peripheral cannulation, especially when access in the arms is not feasible. The great saphenous vein runs along the length of the lower limb, making it accessible for IV access.

• Rationale: The external jugular vein is located in the neck and can be used for peripheral cannulation. Although it is not as commonly used as veins in the limbs, it provides an alternative access point when other veins are inaccessible.

• Among the given options, the subclavian vein is not used for peripheral cannulation due to its location and associated risks. Peripheral veins such as the cubital vein, saphenous vein, and external jugular vein are preferred for cannulation due to their accessibility and lower risk of complications.

The correct answer is: 3) Atracurium

Explanation:

Atracurium is a commonly used muscle relaxant during anesthesia, particularly to aid in intubation. It is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker, meaning it works by blocking the transmission of nerve impulses to the muscles, causing them to relax. This relaxation allows the anesthesiologist to perform endotracheal intubation more easily by ensuring the muscles of the airway are relaxed.

• Atracurium is favored because of its relatively short duration of action and its effectiveness in achieving the required muscle relaxation for intubation.

Explanation of Other Options:

• Diazepam: Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for its sedative, anxiolytic, and anticonvulsant effects, not for muscle relaxation during intubation. It is used to prepare patients for anesthesia but does not directly aid in intubation.
• Fentanyl: Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic used for its pain-relieving properties, typically in combination with other drugs for anesthesia. It does not act as a muscle relaxant.
• Ketamine: Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic used for induction and maintenance of general anesthesia. It has analgesic and sedative properties, but it does not provide muscle relaxation during intubation.

Conclusion: The muscle relaxant commonly used during anesthesia to aid in intubation is Atracurium, as it effectively provides the necessary muscle relaxation for a successful and smooth intubation process.

• The central nervous system (CNS) is a fundamental part of the nervous system that includes the brain and the spinal cord. It is responsible for integrating sensory information and responding accordingly. The CNS is crucial for processing thoughts, emotions, and memories, and for controlling movements.
• The brain, as part of the CNS, acts as the control center for the body, regulating vital functions such as heartbeat, breathing, and digestion, as well as higher functions like learning, reasoning, and memory. The spinal cord acts as a conduit for signals between the brain and the rest of the body.

• Rationale: The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is a division of the peripheral nervous system that controls involuntary bodily functions such as heart rate, digestion, and respiratory rate. It operates independently of conscious control and is divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

• Rationale: The peripheral nervous system (PNS) consists of all the nerves outside the brain and spinal cord. It connects the CNS to the limbs and organs. The PNS is divided into the somatic nervous system (which controls voluntary movements) and the autonomic nervous system (which controls involuntary functions).

• Rationale: The somatic nervous system (SNS) is a part of the peripheral nervous system responsible for voluntary control of body movements via skeletal muscles. It consists of afferent nerves that relay sensory information to the CNS and efferent nerves that carry motor commands from the CNS to the muscles.

• Among the given options, the central nervous system is the only division that includes the brain. The other options (autonomic nervous system, peripheral nervous system, and somatic nervous system) are components of the peripheral nervous system and do not encompass the brain.

• Frozen section examination is a pathological laboratory procedure to perform rapid microscopic analysis of a specimen. It is typically used during surgeries to provide immediate feedback to the surgeon.
• Sending the surgical specimen without any preservative solution is crucial because preservatives like formalin or saline can interfere with the freezing process, leading to artifacts in the microscopic slides. This can complicate the diagnosis and reduce the accuracy of the examination.
• The specimen should be quickly frozen in a cryostat, which maintains the tissue's cellular integrity, allowing for accurate histological evaluation.

• Rationale: Formalin is a common fixative used for preserving tissues for routine histopathology. However, for frozen section examination, formalin is not suitable because it fixes the tissue, making it difficult to freeze and section properly. This leads to artifacts and inaccurate results.

• Rationale: While normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) can be used to keep the tissue moist, it is not ideal for frozen sections. The presence of saline can cause ice crystal formation within the cells during the freezing process, leading to artifacts and compromising the quality of the histological sections.

• Rationale: Chlorhexidine is an antiseptic and disinfectant, not a tissue preservative. It is not used for preserving surgical specimens for any type of histological examination. The use of chlorhexidine can damage the tissue and interfere with the freezing process, leading to poor quality sections and inaccurate diagnoses.

• For frozen section examination, it is essential to send the surgical specimen without any preservative solution to ensure the tissue can be rapidly frozen and sectioned accurately. This method preserves the cellular integrity and provides the most reliable results for intraoperative diagnosis.

• Lifestyle modifications are considered the first-line treatment for hypertension. These changes can significantly impact blood pressure and overall cardiovascular health.
• Key lifestyle modifications include dietary changes (such as reducing salt intake and following the DASH diet), regular physical activity, weight management, limiting alcohol consumption, and quitting smoking.
• Adopting a healthier lifestyle can help prevent the need for medication or enhance the effectiveness of antihypertensive drugs if they are required.

• Rationale: Diuretics are often used as a second-line treatment for hypertension. They help reduce blood pressure by eliminating excess sodium and water through urine, which decreases blood volume.

• Rationale: ACE inhibitors help relax blood vessels by preventing the formation of a hormone that narrows blood vessels. They are typically used if lifestyle modifications and diuretics are not sufficient.

• Rationale: Beta-blockers reduce blood pressure by slowing the heart rate and decreasing the force of heart contractions. They are usually prescribed when other medications are not enough to control blood pressure.

• Among the given options, lifestyle modifications are the recommended first-line treatment for hypertension. They can effectively reduce blood pressure and improve overall heart health, potentially reducing or eliminating the need for medication.

• Heart failure is a condition where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to a buildup of fluid in the body. This fluid overload can cause symptoms such as swelling (edema), shortness of breath, and fatigue.
• Nursing interventions for patients with heart failure aim to manage and reduce this fluid overload to alleviate symptoms and prevent complications. This can include monitoring fluid intake and output, administering diuretics, and educating patients on dietary restrictions such as reducing salt intake.
• By managing fluid overload, nurses help improve the patient's quality of life, reduce hospital admissions, and prevent the progression of heart failure.

• Rationale: While controlling blood pressure is important in the management of heart failure, it is not the primary goal of nursing interventions. Hypertension can contribute to the development of heart failure, but once heart failure is present, managing fluid overload becomes more critical.

• Rationale: Diabetes management is essential for overall health, especially since diabetes can exacerbate heart failure. However, the primary focus of nursing care in heart failure patients is on managing cardiovascular symptoms and complications, not directly treating diabetes.

• Rationale: While pain management can be a part of nursing care, it is not the main focus in heart failure patients. The primary goal is to manage symptoms related to fluid overload and ensure optimal heart function.

• Managing fluid overload is the main goal of nursing interventions in patients with heart failure. This approach helps to alleviate symptoms, prevent complications, and improve the patient’s overall quality of life. While other aspects such as controlling hypertension, treating diabetes, and reducing pain are important, they are secondary to the primary focus of fluid management in heart failure care.

• Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is a chronic inflammatory lung disease that causes obstructed airflow from the lungs. The main symptoms include breathing difficulty, cough, mucus production, and wheezing.
• Bronchodilators are medications that relax the muscles around the airways, helping to open them and make breathing easier. They are commonly used in inhaler form and can be short-acting for immediate relief or long-acting for ongoing control.
• Steroids, also known as corticosteroids, reduce inflammation in the airways, making it easier to breathe. They can be administered orally, intravenously, or through inhalation.

• Rationale: Blood transfusions are used to replace lost components of the blood, such as red blood cells, platelets, or plasma. They are not a treatment for COPD, which is primarily a lung condition.

• Rationale: Antihistamines are medications commonly used to treat allergic reactions and symptoms such as runny nose, sneezing, and itching. They are not effective in treating the chronic inflammation and airway obstruction associated with COPD.

• Rationale: Painkillers, or analgesics, are medications used to relieve pain. While they may be used to manage pain in COPD patients, they do not address the underlying issues of airway obstruction and inflammation.

• Among the given options, bronchodilators and steroids are the most effective treatments for managing the symptoms of COPD. They help to open the airways and reduce inflammation, making it easier for patients to breathe.

• The excretory system is responsible for the removal of waste products from the body. It includes organs and structures that filter and eliminate waste materials.
• Salivary glands are not part of the excretory system. They are part of the digestive system and are responsible for producing saliva, which aids in the digestion of food.

• Rationale: The lungs are part of the excretory system as they are involved in the removal of carbon dioxide, a waste product of cellular respiration, from the body.

• Rationale: The skin plays a role in the excretory system through the process of sweating. Sweat glands in the skin excrete waste products such as urea, salts, and water.

• Rationale: The large intestine is involved in the excretion of solid waste. It absorbs water from indigestible food matter and forms and eliminates feces from the body.

• Among the given options, salivary glands are not part of the excretory system. They function in the production and secretion of saliva, which is essential for the digestion process, but they do not play a role in the elimination of waste products from the body.

• The doctrine of anaesthesia gas supply system is fundamentally based on two essential principles: Identity and Continuity.
• The principle of Identity ensures that the correct gas is delivered to the anaesthesia system. This is crucial for patient safety because delivering the wrong gas can lead to serious complications, including hypoxia or toxic reactions.
• The principle of Continuity ensures that there is a continuous and uninterrupted supply of the gas during the anaesthesia procedure. This is essential to maintain the necessary level of anaesthesia and to avoid any sudden changes in the patient's status, which could lead to adverse events.

• Rationale: While the principle of Identity is crucial, it alone is not sufficient to ensure the safe and effective operation of an anaesthesia gas supply system. Continuity is equally important to maintain the ongoing delivery of the correct gas.

• Rationale: The principle of Continuity is essential, but without the principle of Identity, the system could deliver the wrong gas continuously, which could be disastrous. Both principles must work together to ensure safety and effectiveness.

• Rationale: This option is incorrect because both Identity and Continuity are fundamental principles that ensure the correct and continuous delivery of the gas, which is essential for the safety and effectiveness of the anaesthesia gas supply system.

• The principles of Identity and Continuity are both critical for the doctrine of the anaesthesia gas supply system. They work together to ensure that the correct gas is delivered without interruption, maintaining patient safety and the effectiveness of anaesthesia.