Nursing MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Nursing - Download Free PDF

Last updated on Jan 20, 2025

Latest Nursing MCQ Objective Questions

Nursing Question 1:

What is the term for a gradual increase in the rate and depth of respiration?

  1. Hyperventilation
  2. Hypoventilation
  3. Kussmaul respiration
  4. Cheyne-Stokes respiration

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Cheyne-Stokes respiration

Nursing Question 1 Detailed Solution

Correct Answer: Cheyne-Stokes respiration
Rationale:
  • Cheyne-Stokes respiration is characterized by a gradual increase in the rate and depth of breathing followed by a gradual decrease, resulting in periods of apnea (temporary cessation of breathing). This cycle can last anywhere from 30 seconds to 2 minutes.
  • This type of respiration is often seen in patients with congestive heart failure, stroke, traumatic brain injuries, or other conditions affecting the central nervous system.
  • It is believed to result from a delay in the brain’s response to changes in blood levels of carbon dioxide and oxygen.
Explanation of Other Options:
Hyperventilation
  • Rationale: Hyperventilation refers to rapid and deep breathing, which can lead to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the blood. It is often associated with anxiety, panic attacks, or metabolic acidosis.
Hypoventilation
  • Rationale: Hypoventilation is characterized by slow and shallow breathing, resulting in increased carbon dioxide levels in the blood. This can be caused by respiratory muscle weakness, lung disorders, or depressant drug effects.
Kussmaul respiration
  • Rationale: Kussmaul respiration is a deep and labored breathing pattern often associated with severe metabolic acidosis, particularly diabetic ketoacidosis. It is the body’s attempt to expel carbon dioxide to reduce acidosis.
Conclusion:
  • Cheyne-Stokes respiration is the correct answer as it describes the specific pattern of gradually increasing and then decreasing respiration followed by apnea. It is distinct from hyperventilation, hypoventilation, and Kussmaul respiration, which are characterized by different patterns and causes of abnormal breathing.

Nursing Question 2:

A person who becomes short of breath with little exertion, such as eating a meal, is experiencing which respiratory condition?

  1. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
  2. Stridor
  3. Hyperventilation
  4. Dyspnea

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Dyspnea

Nursing Question 2 Detailed Solution

Correct Answer: Dyspnea
Rationale:
  • Dyspnea is the medical term for shortness of breath. It refers to the sensation of difficulty in breathing or the feeling of not getting enough air. This condition can be triggered by minimal exertion, such as eating a meal, and can be a symptom of various underlying health issues including respiratory or cardiovascular problems.
  • Individuals experiencing dyspnea may feel breathless, suffocated, or like they are running out of air. This condition can be acute or chronic, with causes ranging from asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) to heart failure and anxiety disorders.
Explanation of Other Options:
Cheyne-Stokes respiration
  • Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respiration is characterized by a cyclical pattern of abnormal breathing. It involves a gradual increase in breathing followed by a decrease, resulting in temporary pauses in breathing (apnea). It is often associated with heart failure, stroke, or brain injuries rather than exertion-induced shortness of breath.
Stridor
  • Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound caused by disrupted airflow. It is usually due to a blockage or narrowing in the upper airway. Stridor is more related to conditions such as croup, epiglottitis, or foreign body aspiration, rather than generalized shortness of breath with minimal exertion.
Hyperventilation
  • Rationale: Hyperventilation refers to rapid or deep breathing that exceeds the body’s need to remove carbon dioxide. This can lead to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the blood, causing symptoms like light-headedness, tingling in the fingers, and shortness of breath. It is often associated with anxiety or panic attacks rather than physical exertion.
Conclusion:
  • Among the given options, dyspnea is the most accurate term for describing shortness of breath with minimal exertion, such as eating a meal. It is important to identify the underlying cause of dyspnea to provide appropriate treatment and management.

Nursing Question 3:

A condition in which a patient uses multiple pillows while reclining to breathe more easily or sits leaning forward with arms elevated is known as:

  1. Dyspnea
  2. Orthopnea
  3. Fatigue
  4. Wheezing

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : Orthopnea

Nursing Question 3 Detailed Solution

Correct Answer: Orthopnea
Rationale:
  • Orthopnea is a condition where an individual experiences difficulty in breathing when lying flat. To relieve this difficulty, the person typically uses multiple pillows to prop themselves up or may sit in a forward-leaning position with elevated arms.
  • This condition is commonly associated with heart failure, where the heart cannot pump blood effectively, leading to fluid accumulation in the lungs (pulmonary congestion) when lying down.
  • The elevated position helps reduce the return of blood to the heart, decreasing the workload on the heart and helping the patient breathe more comfortably.
Explanation of Other Options:
Dyspnea
  • Rationale: Dyspnea is the general term for shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. It can occur in various positions and is not specifically relieved by reclining with pillows.
Fatigue
  • Rationale: Fatigue refers to a feeling of extreme tiredness or exhaustion. While it can be a symptom associated with breathing difficulties, it is not specifically related to the use of pillows or reclining to ease breathing.
Wheezing
  • Rationale: Wheezing is a high-pitched whistling sound made while breathing, often associated with asthma or other respiratory conditions. It is not related to the need for multiple pillows or specific positioning to ease breathing.
Conclusion:
  • Among the given options, orthopnea is the correct term for the condition where a patient uses multiple pillows or sits leaning forward with elevated arms to breathe more easily. This condition is often seen in heart failure patients and is relieved by reducing the fluid accumulation in the lungs through positional changes.

Nursing Question 4:

To assess the posterior tibial pulse in a patient, where should the nurse palpate?

  1. Behind the knee
  2. Over the medial malleolus
  3. Below the medial malleolus
  4. Below the lateral malleolus

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : Below the medial malleolus

Nursing Question 4 Detailed Solution

Correct Answer: Below the medial malleolus
Rationale:
  • The posterior tibial pulse is palpated by locating the posterior tibial artery, which can be felt just below the medial malleolus, the bony prominence on the inner aspect of the ankle.
  • This pulse point is significant for assessing the circulatory status of the lower extremities, especially in patients with peripheral vascular disease or diabetes.
  • To palpate the posterior tibial pulse, the nurse should use the pads of their fingers and apply gentle pressure below the medial malleolus.
Explanation of Other Options:
Behind the knee
  • Rationale: The pulse behind the knee is referred to as the popliteal pulse, not the posterior tibial pulse. It is palpated in the popliteal fossa.
Over the medial malleolus
  • Rationale: The posterior tibial pulse is not palpated directly over the medial malleolus but just below it. Palpating over the medial malleolus may lead to missing the pulse.
Below the lateral malleolus
  • Rationale: The lateral malleolus is on the outer aspect of the ankle, and the posterior tibial pulse is not located in this area. This area is associated with the peroneal artery, not the posterior tibial artery.
Conclusion:
  • Among the given options, palpating below the medial malleolus is the correct location for assessing the posterior tibial pulse. This is crucial for evaluating the circulatory health of the lower extremities.

Nursing Question 5:

When a pulse rate is irregular, what is the best method to accurately count it?

  1. Radial pulse for 30 seconds
  2. Apical pulse for a full minute
  3. Apical pulse for 30 seconds
  4. Radial pulse for a full minute

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : Apical pulse for a full minute

Nursing Question 5 Detailed Solution

Correct Answer: Apical pulse for a full minute
Rationale:
  • When a pulse rate is irregular, the most accurate method to count it is by taking the apical pulse for a full minute. The apical pulse is measured at the apex of the heart using a stethoscope, which allows for the detection of both the rate and rhythm of the heartbeats.
  • Counting the apical pulse for a full minute ensures that all irregularities are taken into account, providing a more accurate representation of the heart rate.
  • This method is particularly important in clinical settings to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment for conditions that involve irregular heartbeats, such as atrial fibrillation or other arrhythmias.
Explanation of Other Options:
Radial pulse for 30 seconds
  • Rationale: The radial pulse is measured at the wrist, and counting for only 30 seconds may not capture all irregularities in the heart rate, leading to potential inaccuracies. Multiplying a 30-second count by two may not reflect the true irregularity of the pulse.
Apical pulse for 30 seconds
  • Rationale: While the apical pulse is a more accurate location to detect heartbeats, counting for only 30 seconds can still miss some irregularities. For irregular pulses, a full minute count is necessary to ensure accuracy.
Radial pulse for a full minute
  • Rationale: Measuring the radial pulse for a full minute is better than a 30-second count, but it can still be less accurate than the apical pulse for detecting irregularities. The apical pulse provides a direct assessment of the heart’s activity.
Conclusion:
  • For the most accurate assessment of an irregular pulse rate, the apical pulse should be counted for a full minute. This method ensures that all irregularities are detected, allowing for precise monitoring and appropriate clinical interventions.

Top Nursing MCQ Objective Questions

In females, the onset of puberty is first marked by ___________.

  1. Menarche
  2. Thelarche
  3. Pubarche
  4. Adrenarche

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : Thelarche

Nursing Question 6 Detailed Solution

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Explanation

  • Puberty is the process of happening physical changes in a child's body to mature into an adult body and develop the capability of reproduction.
  • Sequence

  • Thelarche or Breast budging
    • ​Usually, it is the first sign
    • It may often unilateral
  • ​Menarche 
    • ​Usually 2-3 years after breast development
    • Growth spurt peaks before menarche 
  • ​Pubarche 
    • ​Development of Pubic hair 

Key Points

Puberty is marked By Thelarche,  Which means developing of Secondary Sexual Characters

  • Thelarche  age 9.7 years
  • Menarche age 10 and 16
  • Here Thelarche is seen earlier and then Menarche so the correct answer is Thelarche  

Additional Information 

  •  It is initiated by the hormonal signaling from the brain to gonads and ovaries.
  • Girls begin puberty at ages 10–11 and complete puberty at ages 15–17.
  • Boys generally begin puberty at age of 11–12 and complete puberty at ages 16–17.

​Other Changes in Females

  • Breast development
  • Development of pubic hair
  • Perineal skin keratinizes
  • The mucosal surface of the vagina becomes thick and pinkish in response to estrogen.
  • Uterus, ovaries, and follicles will increase in size.
  • Menstrual bleeding
  • Pelvis and hip widen

Mistake Points

Kindly note that

Puberty is marked By Thelarche,  Which means the development of Secondary Sexual Characters

  • Thelarche  age 9.7 years
  • Menarche age 10 and 16
  • Here Thelarche is seen earlier and then Menarche so the correct answer is Thelarche  

Arthritis is the disease of ________.

  1. Skin
  2. Kidney
  3. Liver
  4. Joints

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Joints

Nursing Question 7 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Joints.

  • Arthritis is the disease of Joints.

Key Points

  • Arthritis:
    • The main symptoms of Arthritis are the swelling and tenderness of our joints.
    • The other symptoms of arthritis are joint pain and stiffness, which typically become worsen with age.
    • Arthritis occurs when your body's immune system attacks the tissues of the body.
    • There are two most common types of arthritis:
      • Osteoarthritis: Most common type of Arthritis.
      • Rheumatoid arthritis: Caused due to attack of the immune system on part of our body.

Additional Information

  • Skin: 
    • The most common form of skin disease is
      • Acne
      • Eczema
      • Psoriasis 
  • Kidney: 
    • The most common form of kidney disease is chronic kidney disease
      • Type 1 or type 2 diabetes
      • High blood pressure
  • Liver: 
    • The most common types of liver infection are hepatitis viruses, including: 
      • Hepatitis A
      • Hepatitis B
      • Hepatitis C

In the menstrual cycle, lowering of which hormone causes menstruation?

  1. Progesterone
  2. Thyroxine
  3. Estrogen
  4. Follicle stimulating hormone

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : Progesterone

Nursing Question 8 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Progesterone.

Key Points

Concept:

  • Menstrual cycle: The rhythmic series of changes that occur in the reproductive organs of female primates (monkeys, apes, and human beings) is called the menstrual cycle.
  • It is repeated after every 28/29 days. 
  • The menstrual cycle has four phases:
  1. Menstrual phase
  2. Follicular phase
  3. Ovulatory phase 
  4. Luteal phase

Explanation:

  • During the ovulatory phase, at about the 14th day of the cycle, there is a rupture of the graffian follicle and the ovum gets released.
  • The ruptured Graffian follicle soon gets transformed into the Corpus luteum.
  • The Corpus luteum gets stimulated by the rising levels of LH and starts secreting the Progesterone hormone.
  • Progesterone hormone is required for the maintenance of the endometrium lining of the uterus.
  • In case if pregnancy does not occur after ovulation the levels of progesterone start to fall down and this leads to the disintegration of the endometrium lining causing menstruation.
  • Thus, lowering of progesterone hormone causes menstruation, as it is required for the maintenance of the endometrium lining, and for this reason, only progesterone is also called the pregnancy hormone.

Additional Information

  • Thyroxine: It is an endocrine secretion of the thyroid gland. The thyroid gland requires 120 microgram Iodine per day for the production of thyroxine It regulates the basal metabolic rate of the body.
  • Estrogen, or Oestrogen: It is a sex hormone responsible for the development and regulation of the female reproductive system and secondary sex characteristics. 
  • Follicle-stimulating hormone: It is one of the hormones essential to pubertal development and the function of women's ovaries and men's testes. In women, this hormone stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles in the ovary before the release of an egg from one follicle at ovulation

Deficiency of which vitamin causes scurvy disease?

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B6
  3. Vitamin K
  4. Vitamin C

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Vitamin C

Nursing Question 9 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Vitamin C

Vitamins Chemical Name Deficiency Disease
Vitamin A Retinol Night Blindness
Vitamin B1  Thiamine Beriberi
Vitamin C  Ascorbic Acid Scurvy
Vitamin D Calciferol Rickets and osteomalacia
Vitamin K Phylloquinone Non-clotting of Blood
Vitamin B2 Riboflavin Cracking of Skin

Additional Information

  • Vitamins were first discovered by FG Hopkins.
  • The term Vitamin was coined by C Funk.
  • There are two types of Vitamins:
  1. Fat-Soluble- Vitamin A, D, E, and K.
  2. Water-Soluble - Vitamin B and C.
  • Natural sources of Vitamin D are - Sunlight, fish, eggs, and mushrooms. 

Which gland controls the functioning of other endocrine glands?

  1. Thyroid Gland
  2. Pineal Gland
  3. Adrenal glands
  4. Pituitary gland

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Pituitary gland

Nursing Question 10 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Pituitary Gland.

Key Points

  • The pituitary gland controls the functioning of other endocrine glands. The pituitary is often called the master gland because its hormones control another part of the endocrine system like thyroid glands, ovaries, and testes.
  • The pituitary gland has two parts which are the anterior lobe and posterior lobe. Both parts have separate functions. This gland is located at the base of the brain and it is one-third of an inch diameter.

Additional Information

  • The thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped gland and it is located in the base of the throat. It releases hormones that control metabolism. It is 2 inches long. The thyroid is part of the endocrine system which is made up of glands. This gland uses iodine from the food we eat.
  • The pineal gland is a small pea-shaped gland. it is located in the brain. it is called the third eye. It is about one-third inch long and its color is a reddish-grey gland. The pineal gland often appears in X-rays.
  • The adrenal glands are small glands. It is located on top of each kidney.

Night blindness is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin _______.

  1. A
  2. D
  3. E
  4. K

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : A

Nursing Question 11 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is A.

  • Vitamins are organic compounds that are required in small amounts in our diet but their deficiency causes specific diseases.
  • Vitamins are designated by alphabets A, B, C, D, etc. Some of them are further named as sub-groups e.g. B1, B2, B6, B12, etc.
  • Vitamins that are soluble in fat and oils but insoluble in water are kept in this group. These are vitamins A, D, E, and K. They are stored in liver and adipose (fat-storing) tissues.
  • group vitamins and vitamin are soluble in water so they are grouped together.

  Key Points

  • The deficiency of one or more nutrients can cause diseases or disorders in our bodies. Diseases that occur due to a lack of nutrients over a long period are called deficiency diseases.
    • Deficiency of Vitamin - A causes Night Blindness.
    • Deficiency of Vitamin - B causes Beri - Beri. 
    • Deficiency of Vitamin - C causes Scurvy.
    • Deficiency of Vitamin - D causes Rickets.
    • Deficiency of Vitamin - E causes Less Fertility.
    • Deficiency of Vitamin - K causes Non- clotting of blood.

________ connects muscle to the bones.

  1. Cartilage
  2. Areolar
  3. Ligaments
  4. Tendons

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Tendons

Nursing Question 12 Detailed Solution

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Concept:

  • Tendons are fibrous connective tissues, and connects muscle to the bones.
  • Ligaments join one bone to bone, while tendons connect muscle to bone for a proper functioning of the body.
  • Both Tendons and Ligaments are made of collagen.
  • Cartilage 
    • is a resilient and smooth elastic tissue, rubber-like padding that covers and protects the ends of long bones at the joints.
    • It is a structural component of the rib cage, the ear, the nose, the bronchial tubes, the intervertebral discs, and many other body components.
    • It is not as hard and rigid as bone, but it is much stiffer and much less flexible than muscle.
  • Areolar tissue is a type of loose connective tissue.

    • It holds organs in place and attaches epithelial tissue to other underlying tissues.

    • It also surrounds the blood vessels and nerves.

5de64df3f60d5d2da309455f 16316972514801

How many pairs of cranial nerves are present in the human body?

  1. 12 pairs
  2. 10 pairs
  3. 15 pairs
  4. 31 pairs

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : 12 pairs

Nursing Question 13 Detailed Solution

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Explanation-

Cranial nerves

  • 12 pairs of cranial nerves are present.
  • Cranial nerves emerge directly from the brain.
  • It relay information between the brain and parts of the body.

F1 Madhuri Nursing 20.04.2022 D9

The femur bones of the human body are also known as ______.

  1. wrist bones
  2. thigh bones
  3. shoulder bones
  4. collar bones

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : thigh bones

Nursing Question 14 Detailed Solution

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   The correct answer is Thigh Bones.

Key Points

  • The femur bones of the human body are also called thigh bones.
    • The femur is the only bone located within the human thigh.
    • It is the longest and the strongest bone in the human body.
    • The head of the femur articulates with the acetabulum in the pelvic bone forming the hip joint.
    • while the distal part of the femur articulates with the tibia and kneecap, forming the knee joint.

Additional Information

  • Wrist Bone :
    • Your wrist is made up of eight small bones (carpal bones) plus two long bones in your forearm:
      • the radius
      • the ulna 
    • The most commonly injured carpal bone is the scaphoid bone, located near the base of your thumb.
    • The wrist is a complex joint that bridges the hand to the forearm.
    • The bones comprising the wrist include the distal ends of the radius and ulna, 8 carpal bones, and the proximal portions of the 5 metacarpal bones.
    • The trapezoid bone is the smallest bone in the distal row of carpal bones that give structure to the palm of the hand.
  • Shoulder Bone :
    • The shoulder is one of the largest and most complex joints in the body.
    • The shoulder joint is formed where the humerus (upper arm bone) fits into the scapula (shoulder blade), like a ball and socket.
    • The shoulder is made up of three bones:
      • the scapula (shoulder blade), clavicle (collarbone), and humerus (upper arm bone).
    • Two joints in the shoulder allow it to move:
      • the acromioclavicular joint, where the highest point of the scapula (acromion) meets the clavicle, and the glenohumeral joint.
    • The humerus fits relatively loosely into the shoulder joint.
    • This gives the shoulder a wide range of motion but also makes it vulnerable to injury.
    • Four joints are present in the shoulder:
      • the sternoclavicular (SC), acromioclavicular (AC), and scapulothoracic joints, and glenohumeral joint.
  • Coller Bone :
    • The collarbone (clavicle) is a long slender bone that connects your arms to your body.
    • It runs horizontally between the top of your breastbone (sternum) and shoulder blades (scapula).
    • The beauty bone is mostly just another name for your collarbone or clavicle, in women.
    • It is the bone located above the ribs in the chest.
    • Like the ribs, the clavicle is attached to the sternum, sometimes also known as the breast bone, on its medial end.
    • There are two clavicles, one on the left and one on the right.
    • The clavicle is the only long bone in the body that lies horizontally.

The secretion from the prostate gland enters into the:

  1. Kidney
  2. Ureter
  3. Urethra
  4. Testis

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : Urethra

Nursing Question 15 Detailed Solution

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  • The secretion from the prostate gland enters into the Urethra.
  • The Prostate:-
    • The prostate is an exocrine gland (glands with ducts) of the male reproductive system in most mammals
    • It is a walnut-sized gland located between the bladder and the penis.
    • The prostate is just in front of the rectum. The urethra runs through the center of the prostate, from the bladder to the penis, letting urine flow out of the body.
    • The function of the prostate is to secrete a fluid that contributes to the volume of the semen
    • The secreted fluid nourishes and protects sperm.
    • During ejaculation, the prostate squeezes this fluid into the urethra, and it’s expelled with sperm as semen.

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