Pharmacy MCQ Quiz in বাংলা - Objective Question with Answer for Pharmacy - বিনামূল্যে ডাউনলোড করুন [PDF]

Last updated on Mar 8, 2025

পাওয়া Pharmacy उत्तरे आणि तपशीलवार उपायांसह एकाधिक निवड प्रश्न (MCQ क्विझ). এই বিনামূল্যে ডাউনলোড করুন Pharmacy MCQ কুইজ পিডিএফ এবং আপনার আসন্ন পরীক্ষার জন্য প্রস্তুত করুন যেমন ব্যাঙ্কিং, এসএসসি, রেলওয়ে, ইউপিএসসি, রাজ্য পিএসসি।

Latest Pharmacy MCQ Objective Questions

Top Pharmacy MCQ Objective Questions

Pharmacy Question 1:

One tea spoon full is.

  1. 15 ml
  2. 5 ml
  3. 0.06 ml
  4. 3 ml

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : 5 ml

Pharmacy Question 1 Detailed Solution

Correct Answer: 5 ml
Rationale:
  • A teaspoon (tsp) is a unit of volume measurement commonly used in cooking and pharmacology.
  • In the metric system, one teaspoon is defined as exactly 5 milliliters (ml).
  • This standard measurement is important for ensuring accurate dosing of medications, particularly for liquid medicines, to avoid underdosing or overdosing.
Explanation of Other Options:
15 ml
  • Rationale: 15 ml is equivalent to one tablespoon (tbsp), not one teaspoon. A tablespoon is three times the volume of a teaspoon.
0.06 ml
  • Rationale: 0.06 ml is an extremely small volume that is not representative of a common culinary or medicinal teaspoon measurement. This volume would typically be measured using precise laboratory equipment rather than a teaspoon.
3 ml
  • Rationale: 3 ml is less than the standard volume of a teaspoon. Using 3 ml would result in an insufficient dose when a full teaspoon (5 ml) is required.
Additional Information:
  • In medical settings, accurate measurement of liquid medications is critical. Teaspoons and tablespoons are standard units often used in drug labeling and prescriptions to convey dosing amounts.
  • It's essential for caregivers and patients to use appropriate measuring devices, such as oral syringes or dosing spoons, to ensure precise dosing of liquid medications.
Conclusion:
  • The volume of one teaspoon is exactly 5 ml. This standard measurement helps maintain consistency and accuracy in both culinary practices and medical dosing.

Pharmacy Question 2:

Which type of cellular injury is typically reversible if the stimulus is removed in time?

  1. Necrosis
  2. Apoptosis
  3. Coagulation
  4. Hypoxic injury

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Hypoxic injury

Pharmacy Question 2 Detailed Solution

Correct Answer: 4) Hypoxic injury
Rationale:
  • Hypoxic injury, which is caused by a reduced supply of oxygen to cells, is often reversible if the oxygen supply is restored and the stimulus is removed in time.
  • Cells can recover from hypoxic conditions if the duration and severity of the lack of oxygen are not too extensive and cell death processes like necrosis have not yet begun.
Explanation of Other Options:
1) Necrosis
  • Rationale: Necrosis is an irreversible form of cell injury that results in cell death and tissue damage. Once necrosis occurs, it cannot be reversed.
2) Apoptosis
  • Rationale: Apoptosis is a programmed cell death process that is typically irreversible once it has been initiated. This process is a normal part of development and cellular turnover.
3) Coagulation
  • Rationale: Coagulation here likely refers to coagulative necrosis, a form of necrosis where the architecture of dead tissue is preserved for a couple of days. Like necrosis, coagulative necrosis is also irreversible.
Conclusion:
  • Hypoxic injury is the type of cellular injury that is typically reversible if the stimulus (lack of oxygen) is removed in time, thus making option D the correct choice.

Pharmacy Question 3:

1950 boys and 1300 girls are examined in a test; 42% of the boys and 36% of the girls pass the test. The percentage of the total who failed is

  1. 62.4
  2. 62.3
  3. 61.4
  4. 60.4

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : 60.4

Pharmacy Question 3 Detailed Solution

To find the percentage of the total who failed the test, let's follow these steps:

  1. Find the number of boys who passed and failed the test.
  2. Find the number of girls who passed and failed the test.
  3. Calculate the total number of students who passed and failed the test.
  4. Determine the percentage of the total who failed the test.

Number of boys who passed = (42/100) × 1950 = 819

Number of girls who passed = (36/100) × 1300 = 468

Total number of students who passed = 819 + 468 = 1287

Total number of students = 1950 + 1300 = 3250

Number of students who failed = 3250 - 1287 = 1963

Percentage of students who failed = (1963/3250) × 100 = 60.4%

The answer is 60.4%.

Pharmacy Question 4:

Which component in UV-Visible spectroscopy acts as the detector?

  1. Tungsten lamp
  2. Lithium borate crystal
  3. Photomultiplier tube
  4. Monochromator

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : Photomultiplier tube

Pharmacy Question 4 Detailed Solution

Correct Answer: Photomultiplier tube
Rationale:
  • In UV-Visible spectroscopy, the photomultiplier tube (PMT) acts as the detector.
  • The PMT is highly sensitive and capable of detecting the faint light intensities typical in UV-Vis spectroscopy measurements.
  • It works by converting the photons of light into an electrical signal, which is then amplified and measured to determine the absorbance or transmittance of the sample.
Explanation of Other Options:
Tungsten lamp
  • Rationale: The tungsten lamp is used as a light source in UV-Vis spectroscopy, providing the visible light for the analysis. However, it does not act as a detector.
Lithium borate crystal
  • Rationale: Lithium borate crystals are used in some optical applications, but they are not typically used in UV-Visible spectroscopy and do not function as detectors.
Monochromator
  • Rationale: The monochromator is used to select specific wavelengths of light from the light source. It does this by dispersing the light into its component wavelengths and selectively transmitting the desired wavelength. It is not a detector.
Conclusion:
  • The photomultiplier tube is the component in UV-Visible spectroscopy that acts as the detector, converting light into an electrical signal for measurement.

Pharmacy Question 5:

Which industry widely uses immobilized enzymes for high-fructose corn syrup production?

  1. Textile 
  2. Food and beverages 
  3. Pharmaceuticals 
  4. Mining

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : Food and beverages 

Pharmacy Question 5 Detailed Solution

Correct Answer: Food and Beverages
Rationale:
  • The food and beverages industry widely uses immobilized enzymes for the production of high-fructose corn syrup (HFCS), a sweetener made from corn starch. This industry benefits greatly from the efficiency and cost-effectiveness provided by immobilized enzymes in the production process.
Key Points:
  • High-Fructose Corn Syrup Production: HFCS is produced by converting glucose, derived from corn starch, into fructose using the enzyme glucose isomerase.
  • Immobilized glucose isomerase is used in large-scale industrial processes to catalyze the conversion of glucose to fructose efficiently, improving yield and cost-effectiveness.
  • The use of immobilized enzymes allows for continuous processing, easier separation of enzymes from products, and reuse of enzymes over multiple cycles, reducing production costs and increasing efficiency.
Additional Information:
  • High-fructose corn syrup is a common sweetener used in many processed foods and beverages, including soft drinks, baked goods, and sauces.
  • The immobilization of glucose isomerase on solid supports helps maintain enzyme activity over long periods and under harsh processing conditions, which is essential for industrial applications.
  • The food and beverages industry relies on immobilized enzyme technologies not only for HFCS production but also for other processes such as lactose removal in milk and juice clarification.
Explanation of Other Options:
Textile
  • Rationale: The textile industry uses enzymes in various processes, such as fabric desizing, biopolishing, and stain removal. However, it does not typically use immobilized enzymes for high-fructose corn syrup production.
Pharmaceuticals
  • Rationale: The pharmaceutical industry uses immobilized enzymes for drug manufacture and biocatalysis, but not for the production of high-fructose corn syrup.
Mining
  • Rationale: The mining industry may employ biochemical processes for metal extraction and recovery, known as bioleaching. However, it does not use immobilized enzymes for producing high-fructose corn syrup.
Conclusion:
  • The food and beverages industry is the primary sector that uses immobilized enzymes for the production of high-fructose corn syrup. This application leverages the benefits of immobilized enzyme technology to optimize the conversion process of glucose to fructose efficiently and cost-effectively.

Pharmacy Question 6:

Which of the following is NOT a method to express concentration? 

  1. Molarity 
  2. Molality 
  3. pH 
  4. Normality 

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : pH 

Pharmacy Question 6 Detailed Solution

Correct Answer: pH
Rationale:
  • pH is not a method to express concentration. Instead, it is a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution, which is determined by the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+). The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14, with lower values indicating more acidic conditions, higher values indicating more basic conditions, and a pH of 7 representing a neutral solution.
  • Although pH is related to the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution, it is not a direct method for expressing the concentration of a solute in a solution like molarity, molality, and normality are.
Explanation of Other Options:
Molarity
  • Rationale: Molarity (M) is a common method used to express the concentration of a solution. It is defined as the number of moles of solute per liter of solution (mol/L). This method is widely used in various chemical calculations and reactions.
Molality
  • Rationale: Molality (m) is another method for expressing concentration, defined as the number of moles of solute per kilogram of solvent (mol/kg). Unlike molarity, molality does not change with temperature since it is based on the mass of the solvent rather than the volume of the solution.
Normality
  • Rationale: Normality (N) expresses concentration in terms of the gram equivalent weight of solute per liter of solution (eq/L). It is particularly useful in titration calculations where the concentration of reactive species needed to reach the endpoint is critical.
Conclusion:
  • pH, while related to the concentration of hydrogen ions, is not a direct method for expressing the concentration of a solute in a solution. Molarity, molality, and normality are standard units used to describe solution concentration in different contexts. Therefore, pH is correctly identified as not being a method to express concentration.

Pharmacy Question 7:

Which beta-adrenergic blocker is known for its high lipid solubility and CNS effects?

  1. Propranolol 
  2. Atenolol 
  3. Bisoprolol 
  4. Esmolol

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : Propranolol 

Pharmacy Question 7 Detailed Solution

Correct Answer: Propranolol
Rationale:
  • Propranolol is known for its high lipid solubility, which allows it to cross the blood-brain barrier and exert effects on the central nervous system (CNS). This can result in side effects such as fatigue, depression, and vivid dreams.
  • Because of its lipid solubility and ability to penetrate the CNS, propranolol is also used in the treatment of conditions like anxiety and migraines, where central effects are beneficial.
Explanation of Other Options:
Atenolol
  • Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-adrenergic blocker with low lipid solubility, which means it has limited ability to cross the blood-brain barrier. Therefore, it has fewer CNS side effects compared to propranolol.
Bisoprolol
  • Rationale: Bisoprolol is a selective beta-1 adrenergic blocker with moderate lipid solubility. It has some ability to cross the blood-brain barrier, but it is not as pronounced as propranolol and thus has fewer CNS effects.
Esmolol
  • Rationale: Esmolol is an ultra-short-acting beta-1 adrenergic blocker with low lipid solubility. It is administered intravenously and is primarily used for acute cardiac conditions. It is rapidly metabolized and has minimal CNS effects.
Conclusion:
  • Propranolol is the beta-adrenergic blocker known for its high lipid solubility and significant CNS effects. The other options have lower lipid solubility and therefore fewer CNS-related side effects.

Pharmacy Question 8:

S-A node of the mammalian heart is known as

  1. Autoregulator
  2. Pace-maker
  3. Time controller
  4. Beat regulator

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : Pace-maker

Pharmacy Question 8 Detailed Solution

Correct Answer: Pace-maker
Rationale:
  • The S-A node, or sinoatrial node, is a small body of specialized muscle tissue in the wall of the right atrium of the heart.
  • It acts as the natural pacemaker of the heart by generating electrical impulses that initiate each heartbeat.
  • These electrical impulses cause the atria to contract and push blood into the ventricles, setting the rhythm and rate of the heartbeat.
  • The S-A node ensures that the heart beats in a coordinated and rhythmic manner, which is crucial for effective blood circulation throughout the body.
Explanation of Other Options:
Autoregulator
  • Rationale: The term "autoregulator" is not specific to the heart. It generally refers to mechanisms that automatically regulate a physiological process, such as blood flow or hormone levels, but it is not the term used for the S-A node.
Time controller
  • Rationale: "Time controller" is not a recognized term in cardiology. While the S-A node does control the timing of the heartbeat, this term is not used in medical terminology to describe it.
Beat regulator
  • Rationale: While this term might seem appropriate since the S-A node regulates heartbeats, "beat regulator" is not the standard term used in medical science. "Pacemaker" is the correct and widely accepted term.
Conclusion:
  • The S-A node is correctly referred to as the "pacemaker" of the heart. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the heart's rhythm and ensuring proper blood circulation.

Pharmacy Question 9:

The germ theory of disease, which states that microorganisms are the cause of many diseases, was proven by:

  1. Robert Koch
  2. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
  3. Edward Jenner
  4. Paul Ehrlich

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : Robert Koch

Pharmacy Question 9 Detailed Solution

Correct Answer: Robert Koch
Rationale:
  • Robert Koch was a seminal figure in the development and proof of the germ theory of disease. He provided definitive evidence by isolating and identifying specific microorganisms as the causative agents of various diseases.
  • Koch's postulates, a series of criteria designed to establish a causative relationship between a microbe and a disease, remain a cornerstone of microbiological research.
Brief Introduction to Germ Theory of Disease:
  • The germ theory of disease posits that many diseases are caused by microorganisms that invade and multiply within the host organism. This theory marked a significant paradigm shift from earlier beliefs that diseases were caused by miasmas or "bad air."
  • This theory laid the foundation for modern microbiology, infectious disease treatment, and preventive measures such as sterilization and vaccination.
Key Points Related to Robert Koch's Contribution:
  • Koch's Postulates: These are four criteria designed to establish a causative link between a microbe and a disease. They include isolating the microorganism, growing it in pure culture, reproducing the disease in a healthy host, and re-isolating the microorganism.
  • Discovery of Pathogens: Koch identified the bacteria responsible for anthrax (Bacillus anthracis), tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis), and cholera (Vibrio cholerae), providing solid evidence for the germ theory.
  • Advancements in Laboratory Techniques: He developed several techniques, including the use of solid media for culturing bacteria, which greatly advanced the field of microbiology.
Additional Information:
  • Nobel Prize: Koch received the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1905 for his work on tuberculosis, further cementing his impact on medical science.
  • Legacy: Koch's methods and findings continue to influence microbiological research and medical practices worldwide. His work set the stage for the development of vaccines, antibiotics, and other critical advances in treating infectious diseases.
Explanation of Other Options:
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
  • Rationale: Antonie van Leeuwenhoek was the first to observe and describe microorganisms using a microscope. Although he made groundbreaking contributions to microbiology, he did not develop or prove the germ theory of disease.
Edward Jenner
  • Rationale: Edward Jenner is known for developing the smallpox vaccine, the first successful vaccine. While his work was crucial in understanding immunization, it was not directly related to proving the germ theory of disease.
Paul Ehrlich
  • Rationale: Paul Ehrlich made significant contributions to immunology and chemotherapy, including the development of the first antibiotic for treating syphilis. However, he did not prove the germ theory of disease.
Conclusion:
  • Robert Koch's work in proving the germ theory of disease was groundbreaking. By isolating specific pathogens and demonstrating their role in causing disease, he provided the scientific foundation for modern microbiology and infectious disease control, leading to vast improvements in public health and medical treatments.

Pharmacy Question 10:

Which of the following opioid agonist is only adiministered by parenteral route?

  1. Morphine
  2. codeine
  3. Fentanyl
  4. Methadone

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : Fentanyl

Pharmacy Question 10 Detailed Solution

Correct Answer: Fentanyl
Rationale:
  • Fentanyl is a potent synthetic opioid agonist. It is primarily administered by the parenteral route, which includes intravenous, intramuscular, and subcutaneous injections. This route of administration ensures rapid onset of action, making it suitable for managing acute pain, especially in surgical and critical care settings.
  • Due to its high potency and risk of severe respiratory depression, fentanyl is not commonly given orally. The parenteral route allows for precise control over the dosage and immediate therapeutic effects.
Explanation of Other Options:
Morphine
  • Rationale: Morphine is an opioid agonist that can be administered by various routes, including oral, intravenous, intramuscular, and subcutaneous. It is commonly used for both acute and chronic pain management.
Codeine
  • Rationale: Codeine is another opioid agonist primarily administered orally. It is less potent than morphine and fentanyl and is often used for mild to moderate pain and as a cough suppressant.
Methadone
  • Rationale: Methadone is an opioid agonist that is usually administered orally, although it can also be given intravenously. It is used for chronic pain management and in opioid replacement therapy for addiction treatment.
Conclusion:
  • Among the given options, fentanyl is the opioid agonist that is only administered by the parenteral route. This ensures a rapid and controlled therapeutic effect, which is crucial for its clinical applications in managing severe pain.
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